- Difficulty
- Capstone
- Suggested time
- 9 min
- Marks
- 5
Implicit differentiation and inverse trigonometric functions practice question 29
The equation below defines as a differentiable function of for every real . Find at .
First find the point: which gives ? Then differentiate both sides with respect to , remembering that is a function of . What does the chain rule make of ?
, so . Solve for as a single fraction in , and find its value at the point.
Differentiate that fraction with the quotient rule, writing the derivative of as . Put in the point and the value of only at the end.
An exact value, or a decimal to three places.
Theory UBC Math 100 §4.5CLP-1 §2.11Key results
Worked solution
Strategy
First find the point: arctan 1 = π/4 gives y = 1, and it is the only y because y + arctan y is increasing. Implicit differentiation then gives y′ as a formula in y, and differentiating that formula again needs the chain rule once more, because y still depends on x; the numbers go in only at the end.
Working
arctan 1 = π/4, so y = 1 works; it is the only solution, because y + arctan y is increasing.
Differentiate both sides; the chain rule gives (arctan y)′ = y′/(1 + y²).
Factor out y′. The bracket 1 + 1/(1 + y²) is never 0, so y′ exists at every point.
The slope at the point.
The quotient rule, with (y²)′ = 2y y′; the y³ terms cancel.
Now substitute y = 1 and y′ = 2/3.
Answer
The answer is four twenty-sevenths, about 0.148.
Check
Solving y + arctan y = x numerically, y′ = (1 + y²)/(2 + y²) rises from about 0.6519 at x = 1.6854 to 0.6815 at x = 1.8854, a rate of about 0.148.
Where this goes wrong
Treating y as a constant when differentiating y′ = (1 + y²)/(2 + y²) a second time, which gives 0. y changes with x, so the derivative of y² is 2y y′; substitute y = 1 and y′ = 2/3 only after differentiating, and remember that 1 + π/4 is the value of x, not of y.
Leans on
The chain rule, from The chain rule and logarithms
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